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I have to comment on this, even though your post was long ago.
O'Roarke claims that 'civilized man wanted to kill the Jews, and he was going to have more of it'You emphasize this statement.
This is simply wrong on severalfronts.
First, it does not define who civilized man is, thus the statement is vague at best, meaningless at worst.
Second, if this undefined essence 'civilized man' wanted to kill Jews, and was pursuing them irrationally and relentlessly, then 'civilized man' would be an oxymoron, if the phrase has any meaning at all (see point 1). Or maybe that is the the famously witty O'Roarke's point.
Third, let's assume O'Roarke meant 'European Man'. He obviously doesn't mean the Nazi's, because Zionism arose before the Nazi movement. So he seems to be indicted all of Europe. But this is wrong. Some countries tolerated Jews (England, Italy), some countries wanted them to assimilate (France), some countries wanted them to leave (Poland, early Nazi G
Mitchell,
I am admittedly an O'Rourkeophile from way back, yet I appreciate some of your comments.
Nevertheless I don't see why you think the English would have been so enthusiastic about setting up Israel as a Jewish homeland, if it weren't because they hoped the Jews would leave England and go there. The English weren't too terribly kind to the Irish either, and Mr O'Rourke has some very interesting things to say about that.
Lisa
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