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Your article is highly interesting. I would like, in the hope that it hasn't been discussed already, to tender an question/objection and a nitpick. |
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1) If I meet any medievals, I will ask them. Till then, we've basically got the document. We do know that converting Orthodox were not required to be baptised and that Orthodox sacraments were considered valid. |
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Intrinsic irreconcilability of U.S. & L.G.may be the most important question for Catholics and other interested parties today. But the question of whether the mediaevals could have reconciled U.S. and the Gospels is still not trivial, because if they couldn't, then Benedict VIII was de facto pitting his authority against that of Scripture, and presenting people with a choice between accepting his words and accepting Christ's. If that was the state of mediaeval Poping, that's a pretty good argument for the Reformation (and a modern Protestant could still conceivably use Unam Sanctam as an argument against the Church and dismiss your understanding of "submission" as trying to weasel out of the contradiction.) Hence my question, which I realise may have seemed a little arbitrary. |
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Intrinsic irreconcilability of U.S. & L.G.may be the most important question for Catholics and other interested parties today. |
Commenting by HaloScan |