How do we know that God speaks Japanese?
Because when he first addressed Moses, he said to him "Moshi moshi".
A quick search shows that ἀγάπη (AGAPH) is used 19 times in the Septuagint, 33 times in "the" Greek pseudepigrapha, and 3 times in Philo. (Many of the works in "the" Pseudepigrapha are of Jewish provenance.)
There is a preference for the use of the verbal form ἀγαπάω (AGAPAW) in Greek literature.
The verbal form is also used more commonly among early Greek-speaking Jews than the nominal form. The verb ἀγαπάω is used 75 times in the Septuagint, 105 times in "the" Greek pseudepigrapha, 75 times in Josephus, and 65 times in Philo.
[I am transliterating the Greek η (eta) as "H" to distinguish it from ε (epsilon) and ω (omega) as "W" to distinguish it from ο (omicron).]
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Very interesting Arne - where did you do this search?
I just used Accordance. http://accordancebible.com
Besides Greek resources, there are also extensive Hebrew and Aramaic resources. But these are mostly limited to the Mishna and earlier.
In Hebrew, Accordance has the Bible, the Samaritan Pentateuch, ben Sira, ancient Hebrew inscriptions, the biblical and sectarian Dead Sea Scrolls, and the Mishna. (Some of the Bible, the inscriptions, and the DSS are in Aramaic.) All these are tagged.
In Aramaic, Accordance has the targumim (Onkelos, Jonathan, the Writings, Neofiti, Esther Sheni, and Pseudo-Jonathan) and "Textbook of Aramaic Documents from Ancient Egypt" (by Bezalel Porten & Ada Yardeni). These are also tagged.
When Russians say "ohev," it sounds like "oghev."
Kazakim are Chazakim, too.
How does use of a word denote ownership? Agape is a Greek word specifying a particular type of love, correct? So, just because Christians wrote a book in Greek in which they claim that they and their deity practice this particular type of love, that makes it a "Christian word"?
If I wrote a book in which I used a particular word repeatedly, does that mean I can lay claim to that word?
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