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    <title>Comments for fourpointer - HaloScan.com</title>
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      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Four* Pointer</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50221</link>
      <pubDate>Mon, 03 Aug 2009 10:06:12 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50221</comments>
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      <description>(2 of 2)

But, since...

(a) Paul is calling the Antichrist a false god, and John is declaring the Word to be God, and
(b) theos comes before the verb in John 1:1, and after the verb in 2nd Thess 2:4 (while understanding that &quot;Colwell's Rule&quot; is not a hard-and-fast, set-in-stone &quot;rule&quot; but rather a helpful guide), then,
(c) the diff</description>
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    <item>
      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Four* Pointer</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50220</link>
      <pubDate>Mon, 03 Aug 2009 10:04:39 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50220</comments>
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      <description>(1 of 2)

Alan,

Yes, if one was to put *interpretation* before *translation,* then it makes perfect sense why some would utilize their view that John was attempting to explain &quot;that Jesus was God,&quot; and thus, by way of that understanding, draw on this to provide some level of support for the rendering, &quot;and the Word was God&quot; -- but then, by thus, also unwittingly providing evidence in suppo</description>
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      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Alan</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50184</link>
      <pubDate>Fri, 31 Jul 2009 22:30:23 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50184</comments>
      <guid>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50184</guid>
      <description>...

With respect to the closing comment from Robertson (&quot;The absence of the article here [in John 1:1c] is on purpose and essential to the true idea&quot;), I couldn't agree more.  In fact, in full appreciation of just such significance, one of the earliest known translations of the Greek into another language had reflected the import of the immediate context as well as the significance of the absen</description>
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      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Alan</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50183</link>
      <pubDate>Fri, 31 Jul 2009 22:29:41 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50183</comments>
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      <description>...Jesus own defense of himself against the false charge of blasphemy, recorded for us at John 10:34, 35.

In acknowledgment of just such a Biblical use of the term &quot;gods&quot; for others, although often imperfectly grasped, of recent (and within some other current studies on the subject), there is this candid acknowledgment, even as this also touches upon Jesus’ very words:

&quot;The Hebrew for ‘gods’</description>
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      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Alan</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50182</link>
      <pubDate>Fri, 31 Jul 2009 22:28:03 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50182</comments>
      <guid>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50182</guid>
      <description>Yes, if one was to put *interpretation* before *translation,* then it makes perfect sense why some would utilize their view that John was attempting to explain &quot;that Jesus was God,&quot; and thus, by way of that understanding, draw on this to provide some level of support for the rendering, &quot;and the Word was God&quot; -- but then, by thus, also unwittingly providing evidence in support the view that it is j</description>
    </item>
    <item>
      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Four* Pointer</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50133</link>
      <pubDate>Wed, 29 Jul 2009 06:20:14 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50133</comments>
      <guid>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50133</guid>
      <description>(2 of 2)

In reviewing the list of verses you gave me, there is a very good reason they use the indefinite articles. In all of these verses, 

(a) there is not definite article in the Greek, and
(b)the writer was conveying what type of person it was they were referring to, and/or
(c) the person speaking was talking about one who was part of a lerger group, and it would not make sense to rend...</description>
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    <item>
      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Four* Pointer</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50132</link>
      <pubDate>Wed, 29 Jul 2009 06:12:56 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50132</comments>
      <guid>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50132</guid>
      <description>(1 of 2)

Alan,

While it is true that Within the Greek of John 1:1, it is important to note that this is 'a singular anarthrous predicate noun *preceding the verb*', we need to examine which noun (logos or theos) is the subject and which is the predicate nominative. In John 1:1, the word logos is the subject, theos is the predicate nominative.</description>
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      <title>Thread: 2390077593059097664. Post by Alan</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsr#50130</link>
      <pubDate>Wed, 29 Jul 2009 03:06:01 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50130</comments>
      <guid>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/2390077593059097664/?src=hsrs#50130</guid>
      <description>HERE IS THE ANSWER: The reason why we don't read &quot;A God&quot; for the Greek at Philippians 2:6 within the &quot;New World Translation&quot; is simply because the wording there is not of the same Greek grammatical construction (syntax) as found within John 1:1c.

Within the Greek of John 1:1, it is important to note that this is 'a singular anarthrous predicate noun *preceding the verb*' - that is, not just tha</description>
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    <item>
      <title>Thread: 675256969999339126. Post by Four* Pointer</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/675256969999339126/?src=hsr#50093</link>
      <pubDate>Mon, 27 Jul 2009 05:05:23 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/675256969999339126/?src=hsrs#50093</comments>
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      <description>I may have to do that! Either that or change names. If there is one question I get more than any other, this would be it :)

I was a 4-Point when I first started blogging. I was hung up on &quot;Irresistible Grace&quot; until I learned from John Piper that if God did not actively draw us to Himself, we would never come to Him on our own.

I may just post this under the main header!!

The grace of our</description>
    </item>
    <item>
      <title>Thread: 675256969999339126. Post by Mike</title>
      <link>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/675256969999339126/?src=hsr#50078</link>
      <pubDate>Sat, 25 Jul 2009 18:04:02 +0000</pubDate>
      <comments>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/675256969999339126/?src=hsrs#50078</comments>
      <guid>http://www.haloscan.com/comments/fourpointer/675256969999339126/?src=hsrs#50078</guid>
      <description>I want you to post why you are not a &quot;5 POINTER&quot; instead of only 4.  :)</description>
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